Romans chapter 8

vs 1

This is an interesting development. The verse and chapter start with 'Therefore', but Paul actually goes on to explain why there is no condemnation in verse two, which starts with 'because'. This makes me wonder whether there 'Therefore' is there for the reason we usually think the "therefore is there for" - harkening back to the previous points. Apparently, though, the word in chapter 8 verse 1 is not the same word as is used in, say, 12:1 (which has to be one of the verses most preached on in the universe). Ara (used here) is almost always translated as 'then' or 'so then', whereas oun (used in 12:1) is more 'therefore' (but also lots of 'then') - but the meaning has included a more "consequently, these things being so, accordingly" - whereas ara is more "so then, wherefore" (although there is a note that it comes fom the root airo which supposedly lends it an idea of drawing to a conclusion).

It's one worthy of more pondering and questioning.

Anyway, what is clear from this verse is that there is no condemnation for those in Christ Jesus.

vs 2

Two things jump out at me here. Firstly, the interesting thing that the Spirit is still a 'law'. So it's not completely disorganised. But it's instead organised towards giving life, rather than death. I do wonder though if Paul would have put law in quotation marks if they existed in greek.

Secondly, Paul has swapped from his "I" in chapter seven to "you" (or us) in chapter eight.

vs 3

Another long verse.

Paul says that the law (Law law?) was weakened by the sinful nature. Isn't that an interesting way of putting it! Of course, there's nothing wrong with accepting that the Law was weakened (or weakenable) if you accept that it was never meant to be perfect forever in the first place - that it was designed only to point out the sinfulness of humanity, and even of God's chosen people.

But God isn't powerless or weakened by sin. Rather, he can in fact overcome any obstacle to fulfil his purposes. And he did this through a human/god sacrifice. It's interesting that Christ becomes human so that sin is condemned and punished in humanity's mould.

Sent as a sin offering, of course, because this is in accordance with the Law.

vs 4

Now here's a thing - Christ's sacrifice as a sin offering allows the requirements in the law to be righteous to be met by us completely. It's not because we live a certain way (although the reading of the verse might suggest that) - rather, read "who do not live according to the sinful nature but according to the Spirit" as "by faith". So that lifestyle typifies, if you like, the life of one who lives by faith. And Christ's death in turn converts our faith credits into righteousness.

vs 5

Here we're getting back into some dualistic type language, with the talk of the mind. We shouldn't be afraid of this, though, because Paul cannot possibly be making dualist claims like "as long as your mind is clean, your body can do whatever it wants". He's already tied the mind and body together in chapter 7, and Jesus himself ensures we don't think that anyone has a righteous mind.

I wonder if there is anything in the order that Paul puts it - he puts the living before the mind. I think we would normally say that mind comes first, then action. But Paul has written "those who live a certain way are those who have their minds set that way". Probably in fact there is no causality in this statement, which is in itself a statement.

vs 6

So we are in fact back to control. This verse alone would suggest that humanity's mind is not free - that it is always controlled either by one or the other. But is there freedom to choose between? Possibly not - after all, it is Christ who frees the mind from sin, not the person. But then, if you see freedom as subjective, then slavery to life is freedom from death.

vs 7-8

Here we see the lack of freedom of the mind controlled by sin. It cannot possibly do what God's Law requires. They cannot please God.

Verse 8 is powerful. Romans 8:8 is worth memorising, I think.

It's not without its problems though. God has used sinful people many times in Old and New Testaments to do his will. Well, actually, that's arguable. It depends how you define "will", doesn't it - take Judas for example. There was a prophecy that someone had to betray the Son of Man. Judas ended up being that man.

I know some people split up God's will into bits - where God "wants" some things and "allows" other things. So God wants all people to come to him, but allows people to decide not to follow his ways and so end up in hell. Of course, if you believe that God wants to send some people to hell and has predetermined that they will go there, then this doesn't apply to you. Alternatively, if you believe there is an existant tension between God's pre-determination and people's decisions then you just have to suffer the apparent paradoxical quandary here - often by simply stating that there is no paradox (I'm fine with that, by the way - no criticism here).

But others think that dividing God's will is silly. They say everything happens under God's will, and you've got to accept that and also accept that you may not see the big picture behind it. So yes, people go to hell, and that is God's will. He designed it that way, after all. The basic principle being that God doesn't need to explain himself to us - that therefore perfection and goodness are defined as "God", not as intrinsic and then God has to somehow 'live up to them'.

Of course, in holding that view you either have to separate God's will from his desires, or you have to say that (in the case of Romans 8:8) that God is pleased by being unable to be pleased by those who are controlled by the sinful nature (remembering that ultimately God has authority over the sinful nature too). So God can therefore use someone to fulfil his will, and at the same time not be pleased with them.

vs 9

The Spirit here is shown to be a formal declaration of your belonging to Christ. Without it, you are not one of Christ's people. However, I will point out that, according to these verses anyway, the only way of telling if someone is in possession of the Spirit living in them is that they are not controlled by the sinful nature. There's no 'litmus test' provided to see if you've got the Spirit of God living you. That's the closest thing in chapter 8 that comes to it.

vs 10

This isn't a litmus test (well, that's not true - it is the ultimate litmus test, because if you die and you don't end up in heaven, you obviously didn't have the Spirit of God in you). This is really a statement of fact about the benefit of having the Spirit of Christ in you. Note that you will still die (Paul doesn't even mention the Parousia here - interesting) that you will live. It's a resurrection hope that outlives death.