Romans chapter 10

vs 11


Well, apparently that's what the Septuagint says. Because the Masoretic text says something a little different. But the verse Paul hearkens back to is the one about a cornerstone or capstone, and Peter also alludes to this being Christ. It's only the "put to shame" bit that is different.

vs 12-13


This is an important verse. If we translate this quite literally, then we're going to have a problem defending any sort of special imprimatur for the people of Israel, as there is actually no difference between Jew and gentile. The focus of the verse that Paul quotes is that "everyone" will be saved if they call on God. The unspoken fact being of course that people have to call on God to be saved, and not expect themselves to be saved through some sort of different mechanism other than Christ.

vs 14-15

All good questions. One question we have to face is whether Paul is talking about all people, or now again specifically about the Jews? The very next verse is all about Jews, after all. Paul, while he may have a heart for the Jews, was called as the missionary to the gentiles. So he has a bit of a challenge here. He's saying that people must be sent to preach the gospel to everyone (which of course includes Jews) but then, while he does his bit, that can't really be his focus. That makes him sad.

I should say something about the number of biblical quotes that have been used in this section alone. It's a lot. Paul is obviously adamant that his view be accepted.

vs 16

This is one of the weirder ways of using Scripture. I mean, Isaiah wasn't talking about this message specifically, although he was talking about a message from God more broadly. The Jews didn't accept his message then, and I guess the Jews aren't accepting his message now. Broad bow, I don't really like using Scripture like that, but I guess Paul did. It's a Jewish thing I guess.

vs 17


Now this is one of those verses where people who don't like new versions will say that the translators have been sloppy by adding words like "message", because they are not in the greek. Interestingly, I have found a place where I can see different versions of the greek text online (www.olivetree.com if you're interested) and yet the Byzantine (majority) text doesn't seem to include the classic KJV translation of 1 john 5:7. The 1894 Textus Receptus does though, so I'll use that.

Why am I babbling on about greek? Only because even though the (T)NIV translates with the words "message" included for clarity, the KJV interestingly translates "God" instead of "Christ". But that is because the Byzantine text indeed has the word for God and not Christ there.

Anyway, this verse in an of itself has quite an interesting question posed to it - what exactly does it mean? The reason I ask is because you could get confused by wondering how faith comes by hearing, when the Jews who heard it did not accept it. (Ok, I admit - that was me who got confused.) I think Paul is talking about the fact that without hearing the gospel, you can't respond to the gospel.

vs 18

Ahhh, I see. Paul is exploring the specific situation of Israel. So here he says, "Did they hear?" Of course they did! So that can't be the problem.

vs 19

Did they understand it though? Well, this time, the answer doesn't seem so clear. It seems like even from Moses there is a call saying that the people of Israel grew fat and lazy, and angered God and so God told them that he would frustrate them with a people who aren't a nation.

vs 20

Even Isaiah seems to think that those who have listened to his message have not been Israel, but gentiles.

vs 21

But try as he might, God did not get the message through to Israel. Not for lack of trying! But in the end, Israel were obstinate. They would not listen to their God. And now, they are showing the fruit of their disobedience and their closed ears - for when their Christ has come, they have ignored him and killed him! No wonder Paul feels so bad for them.