2 Corinthians chapter 6

vs 10

Paul continues with his commendations in the pattern of the last verse, with them being mirror statements, seeming dichotomies which actually exist together.

Of particular interest to me is sorrowful, yet always rejoicing. Even Paul was sorrowful. And yet this does not prevent rejoicing.

vs 11

Paul very rarely mentions the name of the church like this in the middle of his letter. It's obviously a part of this statement he's making about how open and free his is making himself to them. It's a very personal statement.

vs 12

And that's quite a painful thing to say. Can you imagine saying that to someone? Let alone to a whole church?

vs 13

His plea to them is that they, in the interests of fairness, open their hearts to him as much as he has to them. Obviously the relationship has been somewhat shaky in the past (I think 1 Corinthians is a testimony to that, but not everyone does).

vs 14-15

Ok, before I start here, why does the KJV have "unequally yoked" while the NIV has just "yoked" and the NASB has "bound together"? Heterozugeo is the word in question (used once in the NT, and here it is). The lexicon gives the definition "to be yoked unequally or differently" (the words roots are heteros, meaning other, and zugos, meaning yoke). Now, perhaps it is fair to say that the NIV thought the term "yoke" was enough to transmit the inequality. But then, who says "yoked" anymore? Stupid word, in my opinion, and I think the NASB did better functionally by putting bound together.

Now, another interesting point brought up by the lexicon in its definition (and bible commentary isn't common in the lexicon, but not unheard of either) is that it saw this verse as referring to Paul banning intercourse (temple type prostitution?) between unbelievers and Christians.

I find this quite convincing, but then it's problematic for all those people who use this verse to say "Don't marry a non-Christian". I actually thought that was clear in 1 Corinthians, and I always thought this verse was vague regarding what it was about. I'd heard other people say it was in the context of business dealings, but where is that context from? I don't see anything about business dealings here.

Is Paul making a more general statement about Christians and non-Christians? Here are my problems with this verse.

If Paul is talking about marriage, why does he give the order (using a scripture quote) to "come out from them and be separate", when in 1 Corinthians specifically says "Don't divorce someone just because they're a non-Christian"?

If Paul is talking about business dealings, where do you get that idea from anyway? Why does he talk about us (or the Corinthians) as being the temple of God? And if Paul says don't break off a marriage if the other person is non-Christian, would he say to break off a business partnership on those grounds? And if the yoke is really unequal, wouldn't that mean breaking up a work contract between worker and employer?

If Paul is talking about generally hanging out with idolators, then how do the Christians spread the gospel?

Not that the lexicon view isn't problematic, because it means for one that the Corinthians were going and having sex at idol altars. But at least the cure (get out of there!) seems to work for that.

vs 16

Paul makes it clear that it is as the temple of God that Christians should have nothing to do with idols. Perhaps the yoking refers to some sort of other agreement between idol temples and the Christian church? I'd almost believe that, but it sort of suggests that the church was a more institutional body, and at the time of writing, it surely wasn't.

vs 17-18

Quoting heavily from the OT, Paul calls the Corinthians to purity and fidelity to God which strongly suggests to me that the problem was in some way syncretistic (such as temple sex) rather than communal or business-like.